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hi professoinals.....how to run this code

Asked by rjnt Kaur on 13 Apr 2013
%Calculate the value of e and kp2
p=3
kpi=4
dp = 5
kp2=rand(10);
e=rand(10);
for i=1:1
j=1:5
r=e(j)*dp-kp1*kp2(i)*(p-1)
if r==1
q1=kp2(i)
q2=e(j)
break;
end
end
it doesnot show value of q1 and q2

3 Answers

Answer by Image Analyst
on 13 Apr 2013
 Accepted Answer

That's because r is never 1. Assuming your kpi is really kp1, then your code outputs this:
p =
3
kp1 =
4
dp =
5
j =
1 2 3 4 5
r =
-2.2984647062648 -1.68125690365354 -2.35894629559188 -6.49583211445794 -3.95680751584107
As you can see, r is never 1 so this line
if r==1
is never true and you never get to the code that would display q1 and q2.

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Answer by Florian
on 13 Apr 2013

Hi Neet,
I have absolutely no clue what your code is supposed to do, but there are a couple of syntax proplems with what you have copied. Here is a correction with indents and ";" to show the end of a line:
%if true
%Calculate the value of e and kp2
p = 3;
kp1 = 4;
dp = 5;
kp2 = rand(10);
e = rand(10);
for i = 1:1 % This loop is redundant
for j = 1:5
r = e(j) * dp - kp1 * kp2(i) * (p-1);
if r == 1
q1 = kp2(i);
q2 = e(j);
break;
end
end
end
%end
This code runs, BUT: 1) The loop for i is redundant 2) r will likely never be equal to 1 since kp2 and e are defined as random numbers Hence, you won't get any values for q1 and q1. You should probably check what this code is supposed to do.
Cheers, Florian

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Answer by rjnt Kaur on 14 Apr 2013

Thanks Florian for your valueable time ...i want to satistisfy the equation e*dp-kp1*kp2*(p-1)=1....my code is not generating r=1..if r is equal to one then the value of e and kp2 is taken..can you suggest other method regarding this...thanking you

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